In an arbitrary ring $A$ (not necessarily unitary) , I have an $a\in A$ such that $ab=0 $ $\forall b\in A$. How can I prove $a=0$?
EDIT: If the result is false for non-unitary rings, please give a counterexample
In an arbitrary ring $A$ (not necessarily unitary) , I have an $a\in A$ such that $ab=0 $ $\forall b\in A$. How can I prove $a=0$?
EDIT: If the result is false for non-unitary rings, please give a counterexample
Take any abelian group $A$ with more than one element and define $a\cdot b = 0$ for all $a, b \in A$. This yields a non-unitary ring with trivial multiplication. It is a counterexample as desired.