In a solution to an old exam, it is claimed that for $n$ even, the number of $(n-1)$-cycles in $S_n$ is precisely $\frac{n!}{n-1} = n(n-2)!$. I understand the rest of the solution, but this part is the only part that is not explained, and of course the only part that eludes me..
Any thoughts?
I would do this using the orbit-stabiliser theorem and the action of $S_n$ on itself by conjugacy. For $c \in S_n$ the size of the conjugacy class $c^{S_n}$ is $|S_n|/|\mathrm{Stab}_{S_n} (c)|$ where $\mathrm{Stab}_{S_n}(c) = \{h \in S_n : hc = ch \}$.
Picking the particular $(n-1)$-cycle $c = (1,2,\ldots, n-1)$, we have $hc = ch$ if and only if $c^h = c$, so if and only if
$$(1,2,\ldots,n-1) = (1^h, 2^h, \ldots, (n-1)^h).$$
If $1^h = k$ then we must have $2^h = k+1$, $3^h = k+2$, and so on, wrapping around at $n-1$. So $h = (1,2,\ldots, n-1)^{k-1}$ and $h$ is a power of $c$. Since $c$ clearly commutes with itself, we get that $\mathrm{Stab}_{S_n} (c)$ is generated by $c$. Hence $|\mathrm{Stab}_{S_n}(c)| = |\langle c \rangle| = n-1$.
By the first paragraph it follows that the number of $(n-1)$-cycles is $n! /(n-1) = n(n-2)!$. Note this doesn't need that $n$ is even, only that $n \ge 2$.