Let $p\geq 3$ be a prime number and let $k\geq 1$ be some integer.
Is it always true that if $x^2\equiv 1\pmod{p^k}$ then $x\equiv\pm1\pmod{p^k}$ ?
For $k=1$ it is true since $x^2-1\in\mathbb{F}_p[x]$ is a degree $2$ polynomial with two distinct roots $-1,1$ and so any other root in $\mathbb{F}_p$ must be one of them.
I know that there exists a primitive root modulo $p^k$.
We know that $$p^k \mid a^2-1=(a-1)(a+1)$$we prove that it is impossible that $$p \mid a-1\\p \mid a+1$$but this is obvious since$$p \mid (a+1)-(a-1)=2$$which is a contradiction for $p>2$ therefore either $p\not\mid a-1$ or $p\not\mid a+1$ which means that either $p \mid a-1$ or $p \mid a+1$