In my foundations of math class we have just finished our section on number theory. I am having a really hard time with the questions involving co-primality, gcd's, and Bezout's identity.
The question I'm working on now asks us to prove $gcd(n^2,n-1)=1$ for all $n>=1$
I know that the above implies $1=an^2 + b(n-1)$ for some $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$.
I seem to be just running into dead ends and gaps in logic/knowledge.
You don't need Bezout's identity.
Let $p$ be a prime dividing $n^2$. Then $p$ divides $n$. If $p$ divided $n-1$ , then $p$ would divide $1$.