It is easy to show that every natural number $n$ can be written as $n = \frac{xy}{x+y}$ with $x,y\in \mathbb{N}$ by setting $x = y = 2n$. Now I experimented a little bit with numbers of the form $n=\frac{xyz}{x+y+z}$ and it seems that every natural number $n$ can be written this way with $x,y,z \in \mathbb{N}$. Now I am asking myself if there is some formula which I am missing which would explain this, or if there is some counterexample. Notice that by setting $x=n, y=2n , z = 3n$ we get $n^2=\frac{xyz}{x+y+z}$, hence there are infinitely many numbers $n^2$ expressible in this way. If you happen to know a formula (maybe for some special case) then feel free to add it.
Edit: One last formula for $n\equiv 1 \mod(2)$: $x=3,y=\frac{n+3}{2},z=n$.
Chose $x = 2n$, $y = 2n+1$, $z = 1$
Then $$\frac{xyz}{x+y+z} = \frac{2n(2n+1)}{4n+2} = n$$