Let's say that the following asymptotic equality holds, namely
$$ f(x)\sim g(x).$$
My question, if the above asymptotic equation holds, then the asymptotic equality
$$ \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} =1$$
also holds?
Let's say that the following asymptotic equality holds, namely
$$ f(x)\sim g(x).$$
My question, if the above asymptotic equation holds, then the asymptotic equality
$$ \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} =1$$
also holds?
Note that by definition
$$f(x)\sim g(x) \iff \lim_{x\to x_0} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} =1$$
or also, as an alternative and more general definition useful when $g$ has zeroes in every neighbourhood of $x_0$, that for $x\to x_0$ with $\omega(x)\to 0$
$$f(x)\sim g(x) \iff f(x)-g(x)=o(g(x)) \iff f(x)-g(x)=\omega(x)g(x)$$