Let $A>0$. If $f$ satisfies the differential inequality $f^{\prime\prime}(t)+f(t)≥A$, and $y$ is the solution to the ODE $y^{\prime\prime}(t)+y(t)=A$ with $y(0)=f(0)$ and $y^{\prime}(0)=f^{\prime}(0)$, then \begin{equation}\label{GP} \begin{cases} f(t)\leq y(t) \quad \text{for all $t<0$}\\ f(t)\geq y(t) \quad \text{for all $t>0$}. \end{cases} \end{equation}
Question: How can I prove this result?
I don't think the result is true...
The general solution for the function $y(t)$ is $$y(t)=C_1\sin(t) + C_2 \cos(t) +A$$
Let $$g(t) \equiv f(t)-y(t)$$ Then we have $$ g''(t)+g(t) \ge 0 $$ with initial conditions $$ g(0)=g'(0)=0 $$
if $f(t) $ was a function satisfying $$ f''(t)+f(t)=A+B $$ for some $B\ge 0$
Then its general solution would be $$f(t)=C_3\sin(t) + C_4 \cos(t) +A+B$$
So that $$g(t) = (C_3-C_1)\sin(t) + (C_4 -C_2)\cos(t) +B $$
$$ g'(0)=0 \implies C_3-C_1=0 $$
$$ g(0)=0 \implies C_4-C_2=B $$
So
$$ g(t)=B \Big( 1+cos(t) \Big)$$
Notice that $g(t)\ge 0$ so that $$ f(t) \ge y(t) $$
for all $t$.