It is well know the notion of Equivariant map .
Now, consider the situation: $X$ and $Y$ being $G$- and $H$-sets, resp., and a homomorphism $\varphi: G\to H$.
How is called a map $f:X\to Y$ satisfying $f(gx)=\varphi(g)f(x)$ ?
2026-03-25 22:01:51.1774476111
On equivariant maps
95 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in EQUIVARIANT-MAPS
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