The exercise states: prove that the limit of the sequence $$a_{n+2}=(a_na_{n+1})^{1/2} \ where \ a_1 \ge 0, a_2 \ge 0 $$
is $L = (a_1a_2^2)^{1/3}$
The solutin says: $$Let \ b_n = \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n},$$ then $$b_{n+1}= 1/\sqrt{b_n} \ for \ all \ n$$ wich implies that $$b_{n+1}= b_1^{(-1/2)^n} \rightarrow 1 \ as \ n \rightarrow \infty$$
Consider $$\prod_{j=2}^{n+1}b_j = \prod_{j=1}^{n}(b_j)^{-1/2} $$
This implies that:$$(a_1^{1/2}a_2)^{-2/3}a_{n+1} = \left( \frac{1}{b_{n+1}} \right)^{2/3}$$...
I am having problems obtaining this last implication, I see that $$\prod_{j=2}^{n+1}b_j = \frac{a_{n+2}}{a_2} \ and \ \prod_{j=1}^{n}(b_j)^{-1/2}= \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_1} $$ But still I struggle.
Any help?
Multiply both sides of
$$\prod_{j=2}^{n+1}b_j = \prod_{j=1}^{n}b_j^{-1/2} $$
by $\prod_{j=1}^{n}b_j^{1/2}$ to get
$$b_{n+1}b_1^{1/2} \left(\prod_{j=2}^{n}b_j\right)^{3/2} = b_{n+1}b_1^{1/2} \prod_{j=2}^{n}b_j^{3/2} = 1.$$
This can be rewritten as
$$b_{n+1} (a_2/a_1)^{1/2} (a_{n+1}/a_2)^{3/2} = 1,$$
which can be manipulated to the equality you were asking about.
This solution should deal with the case where one of the $a_n$'s might be zero separately.