Folland states the absolute continuity of a signed measure as follows:
If $\nu \ll \mu$, then $ \mu(E)=0$ implies that $E$ is a null set for $\nu$ because $\forall A \subset E : \mu(A)=0$ and so $\nu(A)=0$. It is also obvious that $ \nu(E)=0$ does not imply $ \mu(E)=0$ since we can choose $E$ such that $\nu^+(E)=\nu^-(E) \ne 0$.
Is it possible that $\nu \ll \mu$ and $E$ is a null set for $\nu$ but $ \mu(E) \ne 0$? If it is possible, would you give me an example? If it is not, would you prove it?
Note: $E$ is null set for $\nu$, if $\forall A \subset E : \nu(A)=0$.

This is very easy. Let $\mu$ be Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R$ and $\nu (E)=\mu (E\cap (0,1))$. Then $\nu <<\mu$ and $\mathbb R \setminus (0,1)$ is a $\nu-$ null set but $\mu (\mathbb R \setminus (0,1)) >0$