Let $G=H\rtimes K$ be the semidirect product of the normal subgroup $H$ and the subgroup $K$. Let $D$ be a subgroup of $G$ such that $K\le D$. Does $D= (D\cap H)\rtimes K$?.
I believe that is true, so under this resut, does the number of subgroups of $G$ containing $K$ is the number of normal subgroups of $H$.
Thank you all.
Suppose that $G = HK$ for some subgroups $H$ and $K$, where $H \cap K = 1$ and $H \trianglelefteq G$.
Here are steps for the solution of the exercise:
So the number of subgroups of $G$ containing $K$ is precisely the number of subgroups of $H$ that are normalized by $K$.
In general this might not have that much to do with the normal subgroups of $H$.
Just to give an example, consider $G = H \rtimes K$ for $H = S_n$ and $K = \langle \phi \rangle$, where $\phi$ is an inner automorphism of $H$ acting by conjugation with a transposition. There are not too many normal subgroups of $H$, but there are a quite a few subgroups of $H$ normalized by $\phi$.