I have a conceptual kind of a question in one of my lectures, where you have two line segments one is $(0,1)$ and the other $(0,2)$ which of course includes $1$ in the segment. It then ask what the number of points are in each segment, which I assume is infinite and thus the number of points in both is the same.
However, I'm not sure if that's true or not - since it seems to be a trick question, especially since it's followed by asking if the segment which has more points $(0,1)$ or $(0, \infty)$. Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks,
Any two line segments have the same number of points: that is, the points in one segment can be put in one-to-one correspondence with the points in the other segment. (You'll soon learn that "infinity" is not a good answer for "what is the number of points?" as there are many different "levels" of infinite sizes).
For the line segments $(a,b)$ and $(c,d)$, take the function $$f(x) = c + \left(\frac{x-a}{b-a}\right)(d-c).$$ Verify that this is one-to-one and onto.
Can you think of a continuous function that maps $(0,1)$ onto $(0,\infty)$ one-to-one? $f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$ doesn't quite work, but maybe something similar?