In the proof of Proposition 6.1.8(d) of Qing Liu's Algebraic Geometry and Arithmetic Curves, the following identification between two $\operatorname{Hom}$-modules is stated without proof, and I'd like to clarify the details.
Let $R$ be a commutative ring, $I\subseteq R$ be an ideal, and $M$ be an $R$-module. Then the claim is that $$\operatorname{Hom}_{R/I}(I/I^2, M)\cong \operatorname{Hom}_R(I,M).$$
This statement should mean that any $R/I$-linear map $I/I^2\rightarrow M$ comes from a $R$-linear map $I\rightarrow M$. I tried to consider the SES of $R$-modules $$0\rightarrow I^2\rightarrow I\rightarrow I/I^2\rightarrow 0$$ and then apply the left-exact contravariant $\operatorname{Hom}_{R}(-, M)$ to obtain $$0\rightarrow \operatorname{Hom}_{R}(I/I^2, M)\rightarrow \operatorname{Hom}_{R}(I,M)\rightarrow \operatorname{Hom}_{R}(I^2, M)$$
where the image of the second homomorphism is the kernel of the third. I feel like the desired identification should follow from here, but I'm having trouble seeing what's going on.
You can see the answer for this from the short exact sequence you have written down although I believe you need $M$ to be an $R/I$ module. (I also don't see how the statement makes sense if you don't have this) Then note that $\text{Hom}_{R/I}(I/I^2,M)=\text{Hom}_{R}(I/I^2,M)$ so it is enough to show that the image of the last map is 0. But now for any $f \in \text{Hom}_{R}(I,M) $ you have that $f(I^2)$=0. Indeed for any $x \in I^2 $ you have that $x$ is a sum of terms of the form $x_{i}y_{i}$ for $x_{i} \ , y_{i} \in I$ but you have $f(x_{i}y_{i})=x_{i}f(y_{i}) \in IM$ but as $M$ is an $R/I$ module $M = M/IM$ so that you have $f(x_{i}y_{i})=0$.