So I'm trying to prove that $$\operatorname{Span}(A\cap B) \subseteq \operatorname{Span}(A) \cap \operatorname{Span}(B)$$
From the definition I have that $$x\in \operatorname{Span}(A)$$ and also $$x\in \operatorname{Span}(B)$$ And from the definition of Span, i take $$\operatorname{Span}(A)= \left\{x_{1},x_{2},...,x_{k}\right\} $$ $$\operatorname{Span}(B)= \left\{y_{1},y_{2},...,y_{k}\right\} $$ How to continue this?
You can solve this by element chasing: take an $x\in\mathrm{span}(A\cap B)$. Thus $x=\sum_{i=1}^kc_i v_i$, for coefficients $c_i$ in $\mathbb{K}$ (this is the field where the scalars come from, could be $\mathbb{R}$ for example) and $v_i\in A\cap B$, for all $1\leq i\leq k$. Thus $v_i\in A$ and $v_i\in B$ for all $1\leq i\leq k$, and thus $x\in\mathrm{span}(A)$ (being a linear combination of vectors in $A$). Similarly, $x\in\mathrm{span}(B)$, thus $x\in\mathrm{span}(A)\cap\mathrm{span}(B)$. Then, since $x\in\mathrm{span}(A\cap B)$ was arbitrary, we conclude $\mathrm{span}(A\cap B)\subset\mathrm{span}(A)\cap\mathrm{span}(B)$.