QUESTION:
Suppose $y(x) = 3 + O (2x)$ and $g(x) = \cos(x) + O (x^3)$ for $x << 1$. Then, for $x << 1:$
(a) $y(x)g(x) = 3 + O (x^2)$
(b)$ y(x)g(x) = 3 + O (x^4)$
(c) $y(x)g(x) = 3 + O (x^6)$
(d) None of these
MY WORKINGS:
$y(x) = 3+O(2x) = 3 + O(x) \implies y(x)g(x) = 3(\cos(x)) + 3(O(x^2)) + O(x)\cos(x) + O(x^4)$
Which simplifies to: $3 + O(x^2) + O(x^3) + O(x^4) + O(x) + O(x^3)$, given that $\cos(x) = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} \cdots = 1 + o(x^2)$
Now, the answer is (d), none of the above, but in the solutions they simplify $3 + O(x^2) + O(x^3) + O(x^4) + O(x) + O(x^3)$ to $3 + O(x)$ which I don't understand.
Well, the fact is that $\forall \beta<\alpha,\,\ O(x^\alpha)\subset o(x^\beta)\subset O(x^\beta)$
Provided this, it stands clear that $O(x)+O(x^2)+O(x^3)+O(x^3)+O(x^4)$ can be substituted with the coarsest approximation, which is $O(x)$ (indeed, the other ones would be redundant).