Question. Let $G$ be an abelian group and $f,g\in G$. Suppose the order of $f$ is $3$ and the order of $g$ is $2$.
What is the order of $fg$?
Attempt. We need to find a non-negative integer $x$ such that $(fg)^x=1$. Since the order of $f$ is $3$ we have $f^3=1$, or equivalently $f^6=1$. Similarly, $g^2=1$ gives $g^6=1$. So: $x$ must equal $6$.
Is this correct? If so, is the answer concrete enough? If not, where have I gone wrong?
Thanks in advance.
You just need slightly more detail. $(fg)^x=1$ does not always imply $f^x=1$. It does in this case because $(fg)^x=1$ implies $f^x=(g^x)^{-1}$, and powers of $f$ have order dividing $3$ whilst powers of $g$ have order dividing $2$, and the only number dividing both $2$ and $3$ is $1$, so $f^x$ has order 1, i.e., $f^x=1$ and similarly for $g$. Now you just check that the smallest positive $x$ with $f^x=g^x=1$ is $6$ since $6$ is the least common multiple of $2$ and $3$.
To see why your argument doesn't work in general, consider $G$ the group of rotations about an axis. $G$ is abelian, and is $f$ is counterclockwise rotation by $45$ degrees and $g$ is counterclockwise rotation by $135$ degrees, then $f$ and $g$ each have order $8$, but $fg$ has order $2$