On the wiki page for Zorn's Lemma it says that this lemma was
Proved by Kuratowski in 1922 and independently by Zorn in 1935
but then it says:
Zorn's lemma is equivalent to the well-ordering theorem and the axiom of choice
This seems to be saying that Kuratowski and Zorn proved the axiom of choice.
That doesn't sound right. I guess it means that Kuratowski and Zorn presented a proof of what we now call Zorn's Lemma which uses the axiom of choice as an axiom.
Did they also prove the converse, i.e. that the lemma being true implies that the axiom of choice must be true?
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