I'm working through Murphy's $C^*$-algebras and Operator Theory, and I came across the following proof (Here $A$ is a von Neumann algebra):
We set $A^{\bot} = $ {$ v \in L^1(H) \mid tr(uv) = 0 \forall_{u \in A} $}. Set $A_* = L^1(H)/A^{\bot}$, endowed with the quotient norm corresponding to the trace class norm. Then we define for $u \in A$: $\theta(u): A_* \to \mathbb{C}, v + A^{\bot} \mapsto tr(uv)$.
Now somewhere in the proof of $\theta: A \to (A_* )^* $ being an isomorphism, I got stuck. The book claims that if for all $w \in A^{\bot}, tr(uw) = 0$, then $u$ must be in $A$. I don't see why?
Murphy states very clearly how to do it:
So we have:
Now take $u\in B(H)$ such that $\operatorname{tr}(uw)=0$ for all $w\in A^\perp$. Consider the strong operator topology on $B(H)$. Suppose that $u\not\in A$ and apply Corollary A.9 to $u$ and $A$ (which is closed). So there exists a strongly continuous functional $\tau$ such that $\tau(u)=1$ and $\tau|_A=0$. By Theorem 4.2.6 we have that $\tau(x)=\operatorname{tr}(xw)$ for some $w\in L^1(H)$. Since $$0=\tau(a)=\operatorname{tr}(aw)$$ for all $a\in A$, we get that $w\in A^\perp$. But then $$1=\tau(u)=\operatorname{tr}(uw),$$ a contradiction. It follows that $u\in A$.