I have an exercise where i need to work out if:
$H$ is a Hilbert space and $F$, $G$ is closed subspaces of H where $F^{\perp}=G^{\perp}$ is $F=G$ ?
My initial thought is this is not true but i can't work out a counter example.
All help is very appreciated
Remark that $F = \overline{F}=(F^\perp)^\perp=(G^\perp)^\perp=\overline{G}=G$ since $F$ and $G$ are closed.