If $A$ is a $m\times n$ matrix of full rank $m$, and $k\neq k'$ are invertible $m\times m$ matrices, do we have : $A=k^{-1} k' A$ implies $k^{-1} k' = I$?
It looks obvious true at the first sight, but then I realize that it may be false. If you rearrange the previous equation, then $(I-k^{-1} k' )A=0$. What if $(I-k^{-1} k' )$ is just orthogonal to $A$?
Also, if A is singular (not full rank), then may be $k\neq k'$ but still $kA=k'A$. I found an example. But could anyone explain the reason behind?
Let's fix some bases on our vector spaces so that we can identify matrices to linear morphisms.
If $A$ is surjective then for any $x$, $x=Ay$ for some vector $y$, but we have $A(y)=g^{-1}g'A(y)$ i.e. $x=g^{-1}g'(x)$ whence $g=g'$.
For a counter example when $A$ is singular, think of $A$ 'very' singular (like $A=0$ for instance).