I have a math problem I am struggling with:
If a linear transform $A: \mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n$ and we have a basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$ of eigenvectors of $A$, can't we just orthonormalize them and get a matrix $P$ such that $P^{-1}=P^\mathrm{T}$ and thus $P^\mathrm{T}AP$ is diagonal?
Solution (so far):
Let $B$ be the matrix of eigenvectors of $A$.
Now, I know that if $B$ is orthogonalizable, then the rest of the problem is true, and I also know that B is diagonalizable, because it is a basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and is therefore linearly independent. I also know (from prodding the professor) that the conjecture is false (i.e. we can't just orthonormalize $B$). I can't see how the process of normalizing the vectors in a matrix would cause a problem, so it must come down to whether the [linearly independent] vectors of $B$ are orthogonalizable.
Question:
Which matrix of linearly independent vectors is not orthogonalizable? (and why?) Thanks
The thing is, the eigenspaces are sometimes fixed in direction. If you have two single dimensional eigenspaces which are not orthogonal to begin with, how are you going to orthogonalize them?
Orthogonally diagonalizables take on a very specific form. Suppose that $A$ is orthogonally diagonalizable. Then there is an orthogonal matrix $P$ and diagonal matrix $D$ such that $$A = PDP^{\mathrm{T}}$$ But then this implies $$A^{\mathrm{T}} = PDP^{\rm{T}}=A$$ So $A$ is symmetric. From the principal axis theorem, it follows that a real matrix is orthogonally diagonalizable if and only if it is symmetric.