I have a problem to prove the following statement.
Assume that $E$ is Lebesgue measurable and $A$ is arbitrary subset of $E$. Then there exists Lebesgue measurable set $B$ such that $E\setminus A\subset B\subset E$ and $\mu(B)=\mu^*(E\setminus A)$, where $\mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.
We have $$ \mu^* (E \setminus A)= \inf \{ \mu(X) \mid E \setminus A \subseteq X \wedge X \text{ is measurable} \}. $$ Since $E \setminus A \subseteq E$ and $E$ is measurable it follows that $$ \mu^* (E \setminus A)= \inf \{ \mu(X) \mid E \setminus A \subseteq X \subseteq E \wedge X \text{ is measurable} \}. $$ (For any measurable $E \setminus A \subseteq X$ we have that $E \setminus A \subseteq X \cap E$, $X \cap E$ is measurable and $\mu (X) \le \mu(E \cap X)$.
Hence there is a sequence $(X_n \mid n \in \mathbb N)$ of measurable sets such that, for all $n \in \mathbb N$,
Now show that $X := \bigcap_{n \in \mathbb N} X_n$ is as desired.