Let $I\subset A$ be a ideal of a Banach algebra $A$. Assume $p\in \overline I$ and $p^2=p$.
Show: $p\in I$.
Can someone give me a little hint how to solve this, please?
Let $I\subset A$ be a ideal of a Banach algebra $A$. Assume $p\in \overline I$ and $p^2=p$.
Show: $p\in I$.
Can someone give me a little hint how to solve this, please?
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This is recorded as Lemma 2.7 in
I assume that $A$ is unital, if not, we can pass to the unitisation.
Suppose that $(t_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ is a sequence in $I$ that converges to an idempotent $p$. Since $pAp$ is a Banach algebra with identity $p$ and $pt_np \to p^3=p$, there exists $n$ so that $pt_np$ is invertible in $pAp$. Consequently, $p = (psp)(pt_np)$ for some $s\in A$. This proves that $p\in I$.