$$P = NP\text{ if and only if } \exists p \in NP-\text{ complete such that } p \in P$$
Is this statement true? I can prove the first direction $\rightarrow$ but I have difficulties in showing that, supposing $\exists p \in NP-\text{ complete such that } p \in P$, this implies $P = NP$.
The definition of $NP$-complete is
(at least for the purposes of this question). If any $NP$-problem may be reduced to $p$ in polynomial time, and $p\in P$, what does that say about all $NP$-problems?