If $P$ is a monic polynomial and $x$ is a real number $>1$.
So $P(x) = x^{n} + a_{n-1} \cdot x^{n-1} +... + a_0$
In this case do we have : $P(x) \sim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x^{n}$ ?
My first instinct was to factorize : $P(x) = x^{n} \cdot (1 + \text{ some fractions})$, and because $ x > 1$ we have : $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x^{n} \cdot (1 + \text{ some fractions}) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x^n$
But I don't know if this is correct...
Best way to check is to evaluate the limit $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{P(x)}{x^n}=a$$
If $a=1$, then the sign $\sim$ is used.
In your question, the limit isn't necessarily $1$, instead it may be finitely greater than $1$.It may even not exist at all, depending on the coefficients.
So, according to the given Information, we can't say anything for certain between the asymptotic relation of the polynomial and $x^n$.