This problem is from Velleman's "How to prove it" Sec 4.6 Prob 17. I'm stuck at a point
Suppose $\mathcal{F}$ and $\mathcal{G}$ are paritions of a set $A$. Define a new family of sets $\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}$ as follows:
$\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G} = \{Z \in\mathscr{P}(A) \mid Z\neq\emptyset \text{ and } \exists X\in\mathcal{F}, \exists Y\in\mathcal{G}\,(Z=X\cap Y)\}$
Prove that $\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}$ is a partition of set $A$.
It is obvious that $\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}$ is pairwise disjoint and that $\emptyset\notin\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}$.
For proving $\cup_{Z\in\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}} Z = A$, I'm proving LHS is a subset of RHS and vice versa. I'm stuck at the evaluation of $\cup_{Z\in\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}} (X\cap\ Y)$ by using distributive property of union over intersection as cardinality of $\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}$,$\mathcal{F}$ and $\mathcal{G}$ may not be same.
I don't want to prove it by proving the relation over A induced by $\mathcal{F}\cdot\mathcal{G}$ as an equivalence relation as it is alluded to in problem 19 of the same excercise.
Let $a$ be an arbitrary element of $A$.
Then $a\in X$ for some $X\in\mathcal F$ and $a\in Y$ for some $Y\in\mathcal G$.
We conclude that $a\in X\cap Y\in\mathcal F\cdot\mathcal G$ which proves that $\mathcal F\cdot\mathcal G$ covers $A$.
Conversely every set $Z\in\mathcal F\cdot\mathcal G$ is evidently a subset of $A$ so that $\bigcup(\mathcal F\cdot\mathcal G)\subseteq A$.