I am a first-year uni student. While messing around with Euler's formula I got this paradox $$e^{i\theta}=(e^{i2\pi})^{\frac{\theta}{2\pi}}=(\cos(2\pi) + i \sin(2\pi))^{\frac{\theta}{2\pi}}=1$$ I asked my university tutor and he didn't know the answer either. How can I explain this?
2026-05-05 11:01:12.1777978872
Paradox observed while studying Euler's formula
101 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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