In the George F Simmons Calculus with Analytical Geometry, textbook, it is mentioned that the Partial derivatives of a function cannot be treated as fractions as in case of single variable function.
In the example provided it has been proved that,
from
$pV = nRT$
where,
- p - pressure
- T - Temperature
- V - Volume
- n - number of moles
- R - Universal gas constant
$\dfrac{\partial{p}}{\partial{T}} \dfrac{\partial{T}}{\partial{V}} \dfrac{\partial{V}}{\partial{p}} = -1$
which is fine, but in the explanation, it is given as, as the right hand side is -1 and not 1 we cannot treat the LHS of the above statement as fractions
If I am not wrong the 1st statement would mean, we cannot expand a partial differential as say, $\dfrac{d y}{d t} = \dfrac{dy}{dx}\dfrac{dx}{dt}$, where, $y=y(x)$ and $x = x(t)$,for a single variable function and we cannot represent the same for partial differentials the same manner if $y = y(x,t)$
What what is the significance of +1 or -1 for a differential to represented as a fraction?
Yes. $$\dfrac{\partial{x}}{\partial{y}} \dfrac{\partial{y}}{\partial{x}} \neq \dfrac{\partial{x}}{\partial{z}}$$ The equation above is an example to this phenomenon.