So I'm not really sure whether I'm correct as several people are saying some of my syntax is wrong, where others are saying I have a wrong answer. I have checked my answer using Wolfram Alpha and it appears to be correct; could anyone please confirm/clarify?
Calculate the partial Derivative $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ of $$f(x,y) = \frac{x}{y} \cos\left(\frac{1}{y}\right).$$
Is this correct? (Slightly reduced working because it's super long to type out)
$x$ is constant
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} \left(\frac{\cos(\frac{1}{y})}{y}\right)$$
Quotient Rule
$$\frac{\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial y} \left(\dfrac{\cos(\frac{1}{y})}{y}\right)y-\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial y}(y) \cos(\frac{1}{y})}{y^2}$$
Chain Rule
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} \left(\cos(\tfrac{1}{y})\right) = \frac{\sin(\frac{1}{y})}{y^2}$$
$$x\frac{\frac{\sin\frac{1}{y}}{y^2}y-1\cos(\frac{1}{y})}{y^2}$$
Simplified Answer
$$\frac{x \left(\sin\frac{1}{y} -y\cos(\frac{1}{y})\right)}{y^3}$$
Just one typo in Quotient Rule. The Quotient Rule should look like this:
$$\frac{\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(cos(\frac{1}{y}))y-\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(y) cos(\frac{1}{y})}{y^2}$$
Everything else is fine.