If anyone is interested, I found out why the system was un-solvable!
This is essentially an un-damped resonantly forced system, and it blows up.
The rhs of the equation has the same kx and ky as those in the homogeneous solution.
If the homogeneous solution is given, say kx1 and ky1, the particular solution becomes:
Now it is clear, that at kx=kx1 and ky=ky1 the solution is infinite.
Related Questions in PARTIAL-DIFFERENTIAL-EQUATIONS
If anyone is interested, I found out why the system was un-solvable!
This is essentially an un-damped resonantly forced system, and it blows up.
The rhs of the equation has the same kx and ky as those in the homogeneous solution. If the homogeneous solution is given, say kx1 and ky1, the particular solution becomes:
Now it is clear, that at kx=kx1 and ky=ky1 the solution is infinite.