I'm currently trying to understand the proof of Erdős–Rado in Jech's Set Theory book.
But since I've already problems in the first steps, I went back to the proof of:
$$2^\kappa \not\rightarrow (\omega)_{\kappa}^{2}$$
He wants to find a partition that has no homogeneous set of size 3. $S=\{0,1\}^{\kappa}$ and $F:[S]^2\rightarrow \kappa$ by $F(\{f,g\})=$ the least $\alpha < \kappa$ such that $f(\alpha)\not=g(\alpha)$.
Now comes the part I don't understand:
If $f,g,h$ distinct elements of $S$, then $F(\{f,g\})=F(\{f,h\})=F(\{g,h\})$ is impossible.
Why is it impossible? why can't there be an $\alpha$ s.t. $f(\alpha)\not= g(\alpha)\not=h(\alpha)$?
If someone also knows a nice proof of the Erdős–Rado theorem I'd be happy to hear about it!
Best, Luca
Assume that $F(\{f,g\})=F(\{g,h\})=F(\{f,h\})=\alpha$. Then for every $\beta<\alpha$ we have $f(\beta)=g(\beta)=h(\beta)$.
Suppose that $f(\alpha)=0$ then $g(\alpha)=1$, but then $h(\alpha)\neq g(\alpha)$ so $h(\alpha)=0$, in which case $h(\alpha)=f(\alpha)$.
This is a contradiction, since we assumed that $\alpha$ was such that $f$ and $h$ disagreed on its value (and agreed on its predecessors).