There is no general consensus regarding whether a ring should have a unity element or not. Many authors work with unital rings , and other does not essentially require unity. If we do not assume unity to be a necessary part of ring, lets call that structure , a "rng" (which may or may not have unity i.e. $1$), then many pathologies do occur.
I am hoping to get such pathologies (with at least one example) listed together on a page which I can keep as a record for future references.
I will post my list as an answer here, to get it started, and hope others will contribute to it, and make this post valuable.
Note- In the following list, $R$ or $R_i$ will denote a "rng" and $S$ or $S_i $ will denote its "subrng"
Example- $R=\Bbb{Z}$ and $S=2\Bbb{Z}$
Example- $R= \Bbb{Z} \times \Bbb{2Z}$ and $S=\Bbb{Z}\times 0$
Example- $R$ = $\Bbb{Z_6}$ and $S= \{\bar{0}, \bar{2}, \bar{4}\}$ where $1_R=\bar{1}\ \text{and }\ 1_S=\bar{4}$.
Example- $R$ = $\Bbb{Z_6}$ and $S= \{\bar{0}, \bar{2}, \bar{4}\}$ then $a=\bar{2}$ is a unit in $S$ but not in $R$
Example- The above example works as $char(S)=3$ and $char(R)=6$
Example- $R=\Bbb{Z}$ and $S=\{0\}$
Direct Product of "rngs" $R_1$ and $R_2$, i.e. $D=R_1 \times R_2$ is a ring iff both $R_1$ and $R_2$ are rings.
In this case $1_D=(1_{R_1},1_{R_2}) $
Let $M=M_n(R)$, then there is no one-one correspondence between $2$- sided ideals of $R$ and $M$.
Example- Let $R=2\Bbb{Z}$, then $M=M_2{(2\Bbb{Z})}$. Then ideal $$J=\{\begin {pmatrix} a & b \\ c & d \end {pmatrix}\ |\ a,b,c,d \in 2\Bbb{Z} \text{with}\ a \in 4\Bbb{Z} \}$$.
Now it is easy to see that $J$ is an ideal strictly between $M_2{(4\Bbb{Z})}$ and $M_2(\Bbb{2Z})$ but there is no ideal between $\Bbb{4Z}$ and $2\Bbb{Z}$ in $\Bbb{Z}$.
Example- $\bar{3}$ is a zero divisor in $\Bbb{Z_6}$ but not in $\Bbb{Z_6}/I$ where $I=\{\bar{0}, \bar{2}, \bar{4}\}$
Example- Inclusion homomorphism $\{\bar{0}, \bar{2}, \bar{4}\} \hookrightarrow \Bbb{Z}_6$.
Jacobson radical for a "rng" is defined as, $$\text{rad}(R)= \{a \in R :\ Ra\ \text{is left quasi-regular}\}$$
Given an abelian group $(G,+)$ we can always make it into a "rng" by defining trivial multiplication i.e. $a.b=0$ for all $a,b\in G$, but that is not always true for non-finitely generated abelian groups, as if your group has the property that every element has finite order, but there is no upper bound on the orders of the elements, then it cannot be the additive abelian group of a ring with identity. The reason is that if there were such a ring structure with an identity $1$, then $1$ would have finite additive order $k$, and then for all $a$ in your group, $k\cdot a=(k\cdot1)a=0a=0$, which forces $a$ to have order at most $k$.
Example- Prüfer $p$-group $\mathbb Z(p^\infty)$ or the quotient group $\mathbb Q/\mathbb Z$.
Courtesy- Jonas Meyer's answer
Edit on 19/08/15-
For a commutative "rng", it is not necessary that every maximal ideal is prime, as $4\Bbb{Z}$ is maximal in $2\Bbb{Z}$ but not prime as $2.2\in 4\Bbb{Z}$ but $2\notin 4\Bbb{Z}$.