I was given an honors project to solve for the equations of motions of a pendulum with an oscillating fulcrum. I (somewhat) understand the procedure on how to solve it with lagrangian mechanics and the Euler-Lagrange equation, but I am stuck at a question.
How do we know this cannot be solved with Newtonian mechanics? I tried to look up the answer on Google and even tried to solve for it myself but I obtained an equation with theta, acceleration in the x and y direction so Im not sure what to make of it.

Does anyone know? Or are there any resources to understand the precise limitations of Newtonian mechanics?
I am a physics undergrad who just finished electromagnetism and linear algebra, thank you!
With the Newton's laws.
We have two masses $M$ and $m$ linked by a holonomic constraint
$$ p_c = (x + R\sin\theta,-R\cos\theta)' $$
so according to Newton's laws
$$ \cases{ -k x + T\sin\theta = M\ddot x\\ T(-\sin\theta,\cos\theta)'+ m g(0,-1)'=m\ddot p_c } $$
Here $T$ is the tension along the fulcrum. Eliminating $T$ we arrive to the movement equations
$$ \left\{ \begin{array}{l} -k x-M \ddot x=m \left(R \ddot\theta \cos \theta-R \dot\theta^2 \sin \theta+\ddot x\right) \\ \cot \theta \left(k x+M \ddot x\right)-g m=m \left(R \ddot\theta \sin \theta+R \dot\theta^2 \cos \theta\right) \end{array} \right. $$
or
$$ \left\{ \begin{array}{rcl} \ddot x&=&\frac{g m \cos\theta-k x \csc \theta+m R \dot\theta^2}{m \sin \theta+M \csc \theta} \\ \ddot \theta&=&-\frac{\csc \theta \left(g (m+M)-k x \cot \theta+m R \dot\theta^2 \cos \theta\right)}{R\left(m+M \csc ^2\theta\right)} \\ \end{array} \right. $$
Follows a plot showing the mass $m$ path under the initial conditions: $R=1,m=1,M=10,k=1000,g=10,x(0)=0.2,\dot x(0)=0,\theta(0)=\frac{\pi}{2},\dot\theta(0)=0,t_{max}=10$.
Attached a MATHEMATICA script to build the shown plot.