Let $a\in L^1((0,2\pi))$,$u,v\in H^1((0,2\pi))$ such that : $u(0)=u(2\pi),v(0)=v(2\pi)$.
Can we prove that : $$\int_{0}^{2\pi}(a(x))^2u(x)v(x)dx<\infty, ?$$
I really don't know this is right or wrong .
Let $a\in L^1((0,2\pi))$,$u,v\in H^1((0,2\pi))$ such that : $u(0)=u(2\pi),v(0)=v(2\pi)$.
Can we prove that : $$\int_{0}^{2\pi}(a(x))^2u(x)v(x)dx<\infty, ?$$
I really don't know this is right or wrong .
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