I recently came across a throwaway comment in a paper noting the following equality, for an $n\times p$ matrix, $X$, and $\lambda > 0$:
$$I_n - X(X'X + \lambda I_p)^{-1}X' = \lambda(X X' + \lambda I_n)^{-1}.$$
Computing this (symbolically) for small $n, p$ and testing it numerically for various randomly drawn matrices $X$ has mostly convinced me that this does indeed hold in general, however I have thus far been unable to prove this.
A proof, or - ideally - any hint as to how to show this would be greatly appreciated. (I have a feeling this is going to be one of those where I end up - metaphorically - kicking myself when I see the solution...).
Here's a suggestion (not sure if it will work): For fixed $X$, consider the function $$f(\lambda) = I_{n} - X(X'X + \lambda I_{p})^{-1}X - \lambda (XX' + \lambda I_{n})^{-1}$$ from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}^{n^{2}}$. Presuming it is smooth (or even maybe analytic), taking derivatives at a point may allow you to claim that it is constant. Evaluating at a point, $\lambda = 0$ would then show that it is zero everywhere, thus implying the equality for all $\lambda$.
Edit: on second thought, $f$ is not necessarily defined for $\lambda = 0$, but rather only for $\lambda$ sufficiently far from zero (if $X'X$ is not invertible).