Suppose $G$ is a group of finite order, let $\phi: G\to G'$ be a homomorphism and $H$ be a subgroup of $G$ then is it always true that $|\phi^{-1}(\phi(H))| = |\ker \phi||\phi(H)|$ ?
I was reading group homomorphisms and its properties and here's my observation
Let $H'\le {\rm im}(\phi)\le G'$ be an arbitrary subgroup.
Then apply the first isomorphism theorem for $\phi|_{\phi^{-1}(H')}:\phi^{-1}(H')\to H'$, and note that $\ker\phi\subseteq\phi^{-1}(H')$.