Let $W$ be a smooth/topology manifold(possibly with boundary), such that $\pi_1(W)$ has only trivial representation on $SU(2)$.
Q Can we say that $H^1(W;\mathbb R)=0$
2026-03-25 01:25:39.1774401939
$\pi_1$ representation and de Rham
41 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in ALGEBRAIC-TOPOLOGY
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