The problem is as follow:
A row of houses are randomly assigned distinct numbers between 1 and 50 (inclusive). How many houses must there be to insure that there are 5 houses numbered consecutively?
Its solution:
Split the numbers into 10 pigeonholes: 1-5, 6-10, 11-15, 16-20… There must be at least =41 “pigeons”=houses
my problem is that: why haven't we include the ranges (2-6, 3-7, 4-8, 5-9, ... 12-16 ..) within the ones mentioned in the solution? they're consecutive 5 numbers as well, so why not?
So, taking "there are five houses numbered consecutively", which is slightly ambiguous, to mean "there are houses which use five consecutive numbers":
The solution given certainly demonstrates that there is no way to avoid five consecutive numbers given $41$ houses, based on the strong pigeonhole principle, and a small demonstration (e.g. remove the smallest of each group) shows that $40$ houses are not sufficient.
The use of the non-overlapping "pigeonholes" that use all the available numbers means there is less complexity about the proof presented, and since it achieves the result there is no need for further assessment.