What is wrong with my proof here?
Proof:
Let $a, b$ be elements of a group and let $aa = b$.
Through manipulation, we see that $$a = ba^{-1}$$ $$b^{-1}a = a^{-1}$$ $$b^{-1}aa^{-1} = e$$ $$b^{-1} = e$$
We of course know that $bb^{-1} = e$ And from above, we see that $be = e$ or $b = e$. And since $aa = b$, we can see that $aa = e$ and that $a=a^{-1}$.
In going from
$$b^{-1}a = a^{-1}$$
to
$$b^{-1}aa^{-1} = e$$
we had already assumed the conclusion, because we implicitly used the "fact" that $(a^{-1})^2 = e$.