Let $V,W$ be finite-dimensional inner product spaces over $\mathbb C$. Let $T \in \mathcal L(V,W)$ be an invertible linear transformation. Prove that $(T^{-1})^\ast = (T^\ast)^{-1}$.
Here is the proof my professor gave of this: by definition, $\langle Tx,y \rangle = \langle x,T^\ast y\rangle$ for all $x \in V, y \in W$. Then, we set $x = T^{-1}z$. I don't really understand why we do this step, this is where I have trouble.
Applying this definition, we get
$$ \langle z,y \rangle = \langle TT^{-1}z,y\rangle = \langle T^{-1}z, T^\ast y \rangle $$
Then, by definition of adjoint,
$$ \langle T^{-1}z,T^\ast y \rangle = \langle z, (T^{-1})^\ast T^\ast y \rangle $$
From this we can see:
$$ \langle z, (T^\ast)^{-1} T^\ast y \rangle = \langle z,y \rangle = \langle z, (T^{-1})^\ast T^\ast y \rangle $$
Then, by the Riesz Representation Theorem,
$$ (T^\ast)^{-1} T^\ast y = (T^{-1})^\ast T^\ast y $$
So we can conclude
$$ (T^{-1})^\ast = (T^\ast)^{-1} $$
Can someone help me make sense of this proof? I really don't understand why we need to set $x$ to some other vector, or how this helps us prove the statement.
To verify directly, $$ TT^{-1}=I=T^{-1}T \\ (TT^{-1})^*=I=(T^{-1}T)^* \\ (T^{-1})^*T^*=I=T^*(T^{-1})^* $$ The last line implies that $T^*$ has an inverse and that inverse is $(T^{-1})^*$. In other words, $$ (T^*)^{-1}=(T^{-1})^*. $$