I couldn't see why it does not converge uniformly.
Is it because $\lim \limits_{j \to \infty}|\frac1j -1|$ does not converge to $0$?
(This is a problem from Steven Krantz's Real Analysis and Foundations.)
2026-04-04 08:41:08.1775292068
Pointwise Convergence but not Uniform Convergence
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