This might be an easy question but I'm having trouble showing that $\left(1+\frac{i\theta}{m}\right)^m$ has the angle $ m\arctan\left(\frac{\theta}{m}\right)$ in polar form on the complex plane.
Edit: I'm using this to show Euler's formula, so I can't use the formula in the proof.
To show that the arg of a product is the sum of the args, consider the tangent of the args:
$$ (x+iy)(u+iv)=(xu-yv)+i(yu+xv) $$ $$ \tan(\arg((x+iy)(u+iv)))=\frac{yu+xv}{xu-yv}\tag{1} $$
$$ \tan(\arg(x+iy))=\frac yx $$ $$ \tan(\arg(u+iv))=\frac vu $$ $$ \begin{align} \tan(\arg(x+iy)+\arg(u+iv)) &=\frac{\frac yx+\frac vu}{1-\frac yx\frac vu}\\ &=\frac{yu+xv}{xu-yv}\tag{2} \end{align} $$
Now $\arg(1+\frac{i\theta}{m})=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\theta}{m}\right)$, so inductively, we have $\arg\left((1+\frac{i\theta}{m})^m\right)=m\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\theta}{m}\right)$