How would you show that $p(x)= \sum\limits_{i=0}^n b_i(x-c)^i$ is equivalent to $p(x)=\sum\limits_{i=0}^n a_ix^i$ by expressing the $a_i$ in terms of $b_i$ and $c$?
Also we know that the polynomial $p$ in $P_n$ that interpolates $n+1$ distinct points is unique.
We can write $$p(x)=\sum_{i=0}^nb_i\sum_{k=0}^i\binom ikx^k(-c)^{k-i}=\sum_{0\leq k\leq i\leq n}\binom ikx^k(-c)^{k-i}=\sum_{k=0}^n\sum_{i=k}^n\binom ikx^k(-c)^{k-i}$$ hence $p(x)=\sum_{k=0}^n\left(\sum_{i=k}^n\binom ik(-c)^{k-i}\right)x^k$. You get what you want putting $a_k:=\sum_{i=k}^n\binom ik(-c)^{k-i}$.