I have simple questions about polynomials (when I say "polynomials", I mean "formal polynomials", not polynomial mappings).
It might be a little bit strange, but I don't really understand why if we have a polynomial $P = a_{0} + a_{1}X + a_{2}X^{2} + ... + a_{n}X^{n} \in \mathbb{R}[X]$ (where $n \in \mathbb{N}^{\ast}$), then : $$P = 0_{\mathbb{R}[X]} \Rightarrow \forall i \in \{1, ..., n\}, a_{i} = 0$$
Also, if I write $P = a_{0} + a_{1}X + a_{2}'X^{2} + a_{2}X^{2} + ... + a_{n}X^{n}$, can I conclude that : $$P = 0_{\mathbb{R}[X]} \Rightarrow \forall i \in \{1, ..., n\}, a_{i} = 0 \wedge a_{2}' = 0$$ or just that : $$P = 0_{\mathbb{R}[X]} \Rightarrow \forall i \in \{1, ..., n\} - \{2\}, a_{i} = 0 \wedge a_{2} + a_{2}' = 0?$$
Thank you for your answers.
The polynomial $P$ has at most $n$ roots, unless it is equal to the $0_{\Bbb{R[X]}}$ . The last by definition means $a_i=0$. That $P$ has infinite number of roots, we conclude that $a_i=0$ .
About the second question we may conclude that $a_2+a'_2=0$ .