I noticed during calculating variance:
$$S^2=\frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\overline{X})^2$$
that the sum $\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\overline{X})^2$ is equal to $\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\overline{X})*X_i$.
However I wasn't able to prove why this is true, or if there are cases in which it won't be equal.
$$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\overline{X}\right)^{2}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}^{2}-2\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}\overline{X}+\sum_{i=1}^{n}\overline{X}^{2}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}^{2}-n\overline{X}^{2}$$
and also:
$$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\overline{X}\right)X_{i}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}^{2}-\overline{X}\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}^{2}-n\overline{X}^2$$