I think I have a gap in my understanding,
Suppose $Y$ and $Z$ are quasi-projective varieties, and that $Y$ is irreducible. Suppose we have a rational map $f\colon Y\to Z$. Then we know there exists a regular, birational isomorphism $g\colon X\to Y$, for $X$ also quasi-projective, making $f\circ g\colon X\to Z$ a regular map...
I don't follow the existence of such $g$? Is there a nice explanation or proof of why such $g$ should exist? Thanks, I'd appreciate understanding why.
A rational map $Y \to Z$ is regular on some non-empty open $X \subseteq Y$, and since $Y$ is irreducible, $X$ is dense in $Y$. Let $g : X \to Y$ be the inclusion. Then $g$ is a birational isomorphism, and $f \circ g : X \to Z$ is indeed regular.