Question of the week came up in my schools logic club but there is not much information to it. Here is the question:
Show that
$$ \exists x\,[R(x)\wedge \lnot Q(x)],\ \forall x\,[P(x)\to Q(x)],\, \forall x[R(x)\to(P(x)\vee S(x))] \models \exists x\,[R(x)\wedge S(x)] $$ Describe in details all your work
Now I know that it does not want us to use formal deduction, so what method do they want us to use then? Formal Deduction is the only way I am familiar with at the moment but apparently that has been ruled out as a possible method.
Start with $\exists x(Rx\land\neg Qx)$ and instantiate, i.e. infer $(Ra\land\neg Qa)$.
Since $\forall x(Px\to Qx)$, we have $Pa\to Qa$. But since $\neg Qa$, then necessarily $\neg Pa$.
Finally, $\forall x(Rx\to(Px\lor Sx))$ gives $Ra\to (Pa\lor Sa)$. And since $Ra$ and $\neg Pa$, then necessarily $Sa$.
$$Ra\land\neg Qa\land\neg Pa\land Sa\to\exists x(Rx\land Sx)$$