Are these two logical formulas logically equivalent or not? What I am asking is whether these two formulas mean the same thing or not.
(1) ∃x ∀y ((A(x) ∧ B(y)) → ¬C(x, y) )
(2) ∃x (A(x) ∧ ∀y (B(y) → ¬C(x, y) ))
Many thanks in advance
2026-04-12 05:28:41.1775971721
Predicate logic - are these two formulas equivalent?
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1
Consider a universe where $A(x)$ never holds. What are the truth values of the two statements?