Suppose we have, $\exists x\, P(x) \rightarrow \exists x\,Q(x)$
I know this is logically equivalent to $\exists x\, P(x) \rightarrow \exists y\,Q(y)$
Now, suppose we factor the quantifiers:
$\forall x (P(x) \rightarrow \exists y\,Q(y))$
$\exists \, y\,\forall x\,\, (P(x) \rightarrow Q(y))$
Now, suppose we change the order of the factoring:
$\exists\, y(\exists x P(x) \rightarrow Q(y))$
$\exists \, y\,(\exists x\,\, (P(x) \rightarrow Q(y))$
$\forall\,x\,\exists y(\,(P(x) \rightarrow Q(y))$
My understanding is that where the quantifiers are of different types, the order matters. In this case, depending the order of the factoring, the final order of the quantifiers is different. So, it looks like my understanding of the factoring rules is incorrect. Could someone clarify?
In this precise case, the order of factoring does not matter. (I asked the very same question to my logic professor last year). Since every application of a transformation rule results in an equivalent proposition, the order of the application of equivalence rules does not matter, even though it seems surprising that a sentence beginning with $\forall x\exists y$ should be equivalent to a proposition beginning with $\exists x \forall y$.