Is $\lnot\, \forall\ x\exists\, y \lnot\ P(x,y)$ equivalent to $\exists\, x \exists yP(x,y)$ ?
I understand the negation rule, I just need to make sure i got it right. help please
Is $\lnot\, \forall\ x\exists\, y \lnot\ P(x,y)$ equivalent to $\exists\, x \exists yP(x,y)$ ?
I understand the negation rule, I just need to make sure i got it right. help please
We have to proceed by step :
is equivalent to :
which in turn is equivalent to :